Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 26.06.2025 04:49
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
There's no rule.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Vandals slash tires on dozens of vehicles in West Michigan - MLive.com
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Where's the Civil War everyone on the left said would happen?
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
How Trump broke the politics of Medicaid - Politico
You'll usually find your answer there.